您的当前位置:首页正文

f9-2013-dec-a

2020-08-06 来源:钮旅网
AnswersFundamentals Level – Skills Module, Paper F9Financial Management1

(a)

December 2013 Answers

Calculating the net present value of the investment project using a nominal terms approach requires the discounting ofnominal (money terms) cash flows using a nominal discount rate, which is given as 12%.YearSales revenueCosts

Net revenueTax payableCA tax benefitsAfter-tax cash flowWorking capitalProject cash flowDiscount at 12%Present values

1$0001,308·75(523·50)––––––––785·25––––––––785·25(150·86)––––––––634·390·893––––––––566·51––––––––$0006,078·10(2,000·00)(130·88)–––––––––3,947·22–––––––––

2$0002,817·26(1,096·21)–––––––––1,721·05(235·58)150·00–––––––––1,635·47(509·06)–––––––––1,126·410·797–––––––––897·75–––––––––

3$0007,907·87(2,869·33)–––––––––5,038·54(516·32)112·50–––––––––4,634·72246·43–––––––––4,881·150·712–––––––––3,475·38–––––––––

4$0005,443·58(2,102·93)–––––––––3,340·65(1,511·56)

84·38–––––––––1,913·47544·36–––––––––2,457·830·636–––––––––1,563·18–––––––––

5$000

(1,002·20)253·13–––––––––(749·07)–––––––––(749·07)0·567–––––––––(424·72)–––––––––

PV of future cash flowsInitial investmentWorking capitalNPV

The net present value is $3,947,220 and so the investment project is financially acceptable.Workings

Year

Sales revenue ($000)

Inflated sales revenue ($000)Year

Costs ($000)

Inflated costs ($000)Year

Inflated sales revenue ($000)Working capital ($000)Incremental ($000)Year

Capital allowance ($000)Tax benefit ($000)(b)

11,2501,308·75

1500523·5011,308·75130·88(130·88)1500·00150·00

22,5702,817·2621,0001,096·2122,817·26281·73(150·86)2375·00112·50

36,8907,907·8732,5002,869·3337,907·87790·79(509·06)3281·2584·38

44,5305,443·584

1,7502,102·9345,443·58544·36246·434843·75253·13

Calculating the net present value of the investment project using a real terms approach requires discounting real terms cashflows with a real discount rate.

Real terms cash flows are found by deflating nominal cash flows by the general rate of inflation. Since only the general rateof inflation is available, the real terms operating cash flows are those given in the question.

The nominal discount rate is 12% and the general rate of inflation is 4·7%. The real discount rate is therefore 7%(1·12/1·047).YearSales revenueCosts

Net revenueTax payableCA tax benefitsAfter-tax cash flowWorking capitalProject cash flowDiscount at 7%Present values

1$0001,250(500)–––––––750·00–––––––750·00(132·00)–––––––618·000·935–––––––577·83–––––––

2$0002,570(1,000)–––––––––1,570·00(225·00)150·00–––––––––1,495·00(432·00)–––––––––1,063·000·873–––––––––928·00–––––––––

3$0006,890(2,500)–––––––––4,390·00(471·00)112·50–––––––––4,031·50236·00–––––––––4,267·50·816–––––––––3,482·28–––––––––

4$0004,530(1,750)–––––––––2,780·00(1,317·00)

84·38–––––––––1,547·38453·00–––––––––2,000·380·763–––––––––1,526·29–––––––––

5$000

(834·00)253·13–––––––(580·87)–––––––(580·87)0·713–––––––(414·16)–––––––

11

PV of future cash flowsInitial investmentWorking capitalNPV

$0006,100·24(2,000·00)(125·00)–––––––––3,975·24–––––––––

The net present value is $3,975,240 and so the investment project is financially acceptable. The difference between thenominal terms NPV ($3,947,220) and the real terms NPV is due primarily to two factors. First, the tax benefits from capitalallowances are not affected by inflation and so will have different present values due to the change in discount rate. Second,the working capital cash flows are timed differently to the sales income on which they depend, and so their inflation effectsare timed differently to the related inflation effects in the discount rate.Working

Year

Sales revenue ($000)Working capital ($000)Incremental ($000)Examiner’s note

An alternative approach is to deflate the nominal project cash flows from part (a) by 4.7% per year to give real terms projectcash flows, before discounting by the real discount rate of 7%.Year

Project cash flowDeflate at 4.7%Discount at 7%Present values

1$000634.39605.910.935–––––––––566.53–––––––––$0006,070.01(2,000.00)(130.88)–––––––––3,939.13–––––––––

2$0001,126.411,027.550.873–––––––––897.05–––––––––

3$0004,881.154,252.870.816–––––––––3,470.34–––––––––

4$0002,457.832,045.340.763–––––––––1,560.59–––––––––

5$000(749.07)(595.37)0.713–––––––––(424.50)–––––––––

11,250125(125)

22,570257(132)

36,890689(432)

44,530453236

PV of future cash flowsInitial investmentWorking capitalNPV(c)

The directors of Darn Co can be encouraged to achieve the objective of maximising shareholder wealth through managerialreward schemes and through regulatory requirements.

Managerial reward schemes

As agents of the company’s shareholders, the directors of Darn Co may not always act in ways which increase the wealth ofshareholders, a phenomenon called the agency problem. They can be encouraged to increase or maximise shareholder wealthby managerial reward schemes such as performance-related pay and share option schemes. Through these methods, thegoals of shareholders and directors may increase in congruence.

Performance-related pay links part of the remuneration of directors to some aspect of corporate performance, such as levelsof profit or earnings per share. One problem here is that it is difficult to choose an aspect of corporate performance which isnot influenced by the actions of the directors, leading to the possibility of managers influencing corporate affairs for their ownbenefit rather than the benefit of shareholders, for example, focusing on short-term performance while neglecting the longerterm.

Share option schemes bring the goals of shareholders and directors closer together to the extent that directors becomeshareholders themselves. Share options allow directors to purchase shares at a specified price on a specified future date,encouraging them to make decisions which exert an upward pressure on share prices. Unfortunately, a general increase inshare prices can lead to directors being rewarded for poor performance, while a general decrease in share prices can lead tomanagers not being rewarded for good performance. However, share option schemes can lead to a culture of performanceimprovement and so can bring continuing benefit to stakeholders.

Regulatory requirements

Regulatory requirements can be imposed through corporate governance codes of best practice and stock market listingregulations.

Corporate governance codes of best practice, such as the UK Corporate Governance Code, seek to reduce corporate risk andincrease corporate accountability. Responsibility is placed on directors to identify, assess and manage risk within anorganisation. An independent perspective is brought to directors’ decisions by appointing non-executive directors to create abalanced board of directors, and by appointing non-executive directors to remuneration committees and audit committees.

12

Stock exchange listing regulations can place obligations on directors to manage companies in ways which support theachievement of objectives such as the maximisation of shareholder wealth. For example, listing regulations may requirecompanies to publish regular financial reports, to provide detailed information on directorial rewards and to publish detailedreports on corporate governance and corporate social responsibility.

2(a)Cost of equity of Card Co using DGM

The average dividend growth rate in recent years is 4%:(62·0/55·1)0·333– 1 = 1·040 – 1 = 0·04 or 4% per yearUsing the dividend growth model:

Ke= 0·04 + [(62 x 1·04)/716] = 0·04 + 0·09 = 0·13 or 13%

(b)

The dividend growth model calculates the apparent cost of equity in the capital market, provided that the current market priceof the share, the current dividend and the future dividend growth rate are known. While the current market price and thecurrent dividend are readily available, it is very difficult to find an accurate value for the future dividend growth rate. Acommon approach to finding the future dividend growth rate is to calculate the average historic dividend growth rate and thento assume that the future dividend growth rate will be similar. There is no reason why this assumption should be true.The capital asset pricing model tends to be preferred to the dividend growth model as a way of calculating the cost of equityas it has a sound theoretical basis, relating the cost of equity or required return of well-diversified shareholders to thesystematic risk they face through owning the shares of a company. However, finding suitable values for the variables used bythe capital asset pricing model (risk-free rate of return, equity beta and equity risk premium) can be difficult.

(c)Cost of debt of Card Co

The annual after-tax interest payment is 8·5 x (1 – 0·3) = $5·95 per bondUsing linear interpolation:Year01–55

Cash flowMarket priceInterestRedemption

$(103·42)

5·95100

5% DF1·0004·3290·784

PV ($)(103·42)25·7678·40––––––0·74

6% DF1·0004·2120·747

PV ($)(103·42)25·0674·70––––––(3·66)

After-tax cost of debt = 5 + [((6 –5) x 0·74)/(0·74 + 3·66)] = 5 + 0·17 = 5·17%Market values

Equity: 8m x 7·16 =

Bonds: 5m x 103·42/100 =Total value of Card CoWACC calculation

WACC of Card Co = [(12 x 57,280) + (5·17 x 5,171)]/62,451 = 11·4%(d)

First, the proxy company equity beta must be ungeared:Asset beta = (1·038 x 0·75)/(0·75 + (0·25 x 0·7)) = 0·842

The asset beta must then be regeared to reflect the financial risk of Card Co:Equity beta = 0·842 x (57,280 + (5,171 x 0·7))/57,280 = 0·895Project-specific cost of equity = 4 + (0·895 x 5) = 8·5%(e)

The value of a company can be expressed as the present value of its future cash flows, discounted at its weighted averagecost of capital (WACC). The value of a company can therefore theoretically be maximised by minimising its WACC. If theWACC depends on the capital structure of a company, i.e. on the balance between debt and equity, then the minimum WACCwill arise when the capital structure is optimal.

The idea of an optimal capital structure has been debated for many years. The traditional view of capital structure suggeststhat the WACC decreases as debt is introduced at low levels of gearing, before reaching a minimum and then increasing asthe cost of equity responds to increasing financial risk.

Miller and Modigliani originally argued that the WACC is independent of a company’s capital structure, depending only on itsbusiness risk rather than on its financial risk. This suggestion that it is not possible to minimise the WACC, and hence thatit is not possible to maximise the value of a company by selecting a particular capital structure, depends on the assumptionof a perfect capital market with no corporate taxation.

$00057,2805,171–––––––62,451–––––––

13

However, real world capital markets are not perfect and companies pay taxes on profit. Since interest is a tax-allowablededuction in calculating taxable profit, debt is a tax-efficient source of finance and replacing equity with debt will decreasethe WACC of a company. In the real world, therefore, increasing gearing will decrease the WACC of a company and henceincrease its value.

At high levels of gearing, the WACC of a company will increase due, for example, to increasing bankruptcy risk. Therefore, itcan be argued that use of debt in a company’s capital structure can reduce its WACC and increase its value, provided thatgearing is kept to an acceptable level.

3(a)(i)Cost of current ordering policy

Ordering cost = 12 x 267 = $3,204 per year

Monthly order = monthly demand = 300,000/12 = 25,000 unitsBuffer inventory = 25,000 x 0·4 = 10,000 units

Average inventory excluding buffer inventory = 25,000/2 = 12,500 units

Average inventory including buffer inventory = 12,500 + 10,000 = 22,500 unitsHolding cost = 22,500 x 0·1 = $2,250 per yearTotal cost = 3,204 + 2,250 = $5,454 per year

(ii)Cost of ordering policy using economic order quantity (EOQ)

EOQ = ((2 x 267 x 300,000)/0·10)0·5= 40,025 or 40,000 units per orderNumber of orders per year = 300,000/40,000 = 7·5 orders per yearOrder cost = 7·5 x 267 = $2,003

Average inventory excluding buffer inventory = 40,000/2 = 20,000 units

Average inventory including buffer inventory = 20,000 + 10,000 = 30,000 unitsHolding cost = 30,000 x 0·1 = $3,000 per yearTotal cost = $2,003 + $3,000 = $5,003 per year

(iii)Saving from introducing EOQ ordering policy = 5,454 – 5,003 = $451 per year(b)

Product Q trade payables at end of year = 456,000 x 1 x 60/365 = $74,959

Product Q trade payables after discount = 456,000 x 1 x 0·99 x 30/365 = $37,105Decrease in Product Q trade payables = 74,959 – 37,105 = $37,854Increase in financing cost = 37,854 x 0·05 = $1,893Value of discount = 456,000 x 0·01 = $4,560

Net value of offer of discount = 4,560 – 1,893 = $2,667

Invoice discounting refers to the purchase of selected invoices by a financial company at a discount to their face value. Invoicediscounting can provide immediate cash to a company rather than waiting for the invoices to be settled. It tends to be usedas an occasional source of short-term finance, rather than a regular source of cash. Invoice discounting can therefore aid inthe management of trade receivables by accelerating cash inflow from trade receivables when short-term cash flow problemsarise.

Factoring refers to a commercial arrangement whereby a financial company takes over the management of a company’s tradereceivables. This will include invoicing customers, accounting for sales and collections of amounts owed. Factors will advancecash to a company against the amounts outstanding. If the client requires, insurance against bad debts may also be provided(non-recourse factoring).

Factoring can assist in the management of trade receivables through the expertise offered by the factoring company. This maylead to a reduction in bad debts, a decrease in the level of trade receivables, a decrease in the amount of managerial timedevoted to chasing slow payers, and taking advantage of early settlement discounts from trade suppliers due to the availabilityof cash from trade receivables.(d)

The objectives of working capital management are usually taken to be profitability and liquidity. Profitability is allied to thefinancial objective of maximising shareholder wealth, while liquidity is needed in order to settle liabilities as they fall due. Acompany must have sufficient cash to meet its liabilities, since otherwise it may fail. However, these two objectives are inconflict, since liquid resources have no return or low levels of return and hence decrease profitability. A conservative approachto working capital management will decrease the risk of running out of cash, favouring liquidity over profitability anddecreasing risk. Conversely, an aggressive approach to working capital management will emphasise profitability over liquidity,increasing the risk of running out of cash while increasing profitability.

Working capital management is central to financial management for several reasons. First, cash is the life-blood of acompany’s business activities and without enough cash to meet short-term liabilities, a company would fail. Second, currentassets can account for more than half of a company’s assets, and so must be carefully managed. Poor management of currentassets can lead to loss of profitability and decreased returns to shareholders. Third, for SMEs current liabilities are a majorsource of finance and must be carefully managed in order to ensure continuing availability of such finance.

(c)

14

4(a)

In order to evaluate whether Spot Co should use leasing or borrowing, the present value of the cost of leasing is comparedwith the present value of the cost of borrowing.

Leasing

The lease payments should be discounted using the cost of borrowing of Spot Co. Since taxation must be ignored, the before-tax cost of borrowing must be used. The 7% interest rate of the bank loan can be used here.

The five lease payments will begin at year 0 and the last lease payment will be at the start of year 5, i.e. at the end of year 4. The appropriate annuity factor to use will therefore be 4·387 (1·000 + 3·387).Present value of cost of leasing = 155,000 x 4·387= $679,985

Borrowing

The purchase cost and the present value of maintenance payments will be offset by the present value of the future scrapvalue. The appropriate discount rate is again the before-tax cost of borrowing of 7%.YearCash flow$7% Discount factorPresent value ($)0Purchase(750,000)1·000(750,000)1–5Maintenance(20,000)4·100(82,000)5Scrap value75,0000·71353,475Present value of cost of borrowing = 750,000 + 82,000 – 53,475 = $778,525

The cheaper source of financing is leasing, since the present value of the cost of leasing is $98,540 less than the presentvalue of the cost of borrowing.

(b)Operating leasing can act as a source of short-term finance, while finance leasing can act as a source of long-term finance. Operating leasing offers a solution to the obsolescence problem, whereby rapidly aging assets can decrease competitiveadvantage. Where keeping up-to-date with the latest technology is essential for business operations, operating leasingprovides equipment on short-term contracts which can usually be cancelled without penalty to the lessee. Operating leasingcan also provide access to skilled maintenance, which might otherwise need to be bought in by the lessee, although therewill be a charge for this service.

Both operating leasing and finance leasing provide access to non-current assets in cases where borrowing may be difficult oreven not possible for a company. For example, the company may lack assets to offer as security, or it may be seen as toorisky to lend to. Since ownership of the leased asset remains with the lessor, it can be retrieved if lease rental payments arenot forthcoming.

(c)

Interest (riba) is the predetermined amount received by a provider of finance, over and above the principal amount of financeprovided. Riba is absolutely forbidden in Islamic finance. Riba can be seen as unfair from the perspective of the borrower,the lender and the economy. For the borrower, riba can turn a profit into a loss when profitability is low. For the lender, ribacan provide an inadequate return when unanticipated inflation arises. In the economy, riba can lead to allocationalinefficiency, directing economic resources to sub-optimal investments.

Islamic financial instruments require that an active role be played by the provider of funds, so that the risks and rewards ofownership are shared. In a Mudaraba contract, for example, profits are shared between the partners in the proportions agreedin the contract, while losses are borne by the provider of finance. In a Musharaka contract, profits are shared between thepartners in the proportions agreed in the contract, while losses are shared between the partners according to their capitalcontributions. With Sukuk, certificates are issued which are linked to an underlying tangible asset and which also transfer therisk and rewards of ownership. The underlying asset is managed on behalf of the Sukuk holders.

In a Murabaha contract, payment by the buyer is made on a deferred or instalment basis. Returns are made by the supplieras a mark-up is paid by the buyer in exchange for the right to pay after the delivery date. In an Ijara contract, which isequivalent to a lease agreement, returns are made through the payment of fixed or variable lease rental payments.

(d)

There are several reasons which can be discussed in explaining why interest rates may differ between loans of differentmaturity, as follows:

Liquidity preference theory

This theory suggests that investors prefer to have cash now and so require compensation for lending money. The longer theperiod for which money is lent, the higher will be the interest rate to compensate the lender for deferring their use of theloaned cash. The higher interest rate for long-term debt over short-term debt will also compensate lenders for increasing riskover time, for example, the increasing risk of default with increasing maturity. Liquidity preference theory can therefore explainwhy the yield curve is normally upward sloping.

Expectations theory

This theory suggests that the relationship between short-term and long-term interest rates can be explained by expectationsregarding interest rate movements. Where future interest rates are expected to rise compared to short-term interest rates, theyield curve will slope upwards. Where future interest rates are expected to fall compared to short-term interest rates, the yieldcurve will slope downwards.

Market segmentation theory

The reason why interest rates may differ between loans of different maturity could be because the balance between supply

15

and demand differs between markets for loans of different maturity. If demand for long-term loans is greater than the supply,for example, because of a high public sector borrowing requirement, interest rates in the long-term loan market will increaseto restore equilibrium between demand and supply. Differing interest rates between markets for loans of different maturity canalso explain why the yield curve may not be smooth, but kinked.

Fiscal policy

Governments may use fiscal policy to support the achievement of economic objectives. For example, the government orcentral bank may act to increase short-term interest rates in order to reduce inflation. This can result in short-term interestrates being higher than long-term interest rates, an effect which can be compounded if there is a decrease in the anticipatedinflation reflected in long-term interest rates.

16

Fundamentals Level – Skills Module, Paper F9Financial Management

December 2013 Marking Scheme1(a)

Inflated sales revenueInflated costsTax liability

Capital allowance, years 1 to 3Balancing allowance, year 4Capital allowance tax benefits

Timing of tax liabilities and benefitsIncremental working capital investmentRecovery of working capital

Market research omitted as sunk costCalculation of nominal terms NPVComment on financial acceptability

(b)

Calculation of real cost of capitalReal terms net revenue

Real terms after-tax cash flow

Real terms working capital investment and recoveryCalculation of real terms NPV

Comment on financial acceptability

(c)

Managerial reward schemesRegulatory requirementsOther relevant discussion

2(a)

Calculation of historic dividend growth rateCalculation of cost of equity using DGM

(b)

Dividend growth model discussionCapital asset pricing model discussion

(c)

After-tax interest payment

Setting up linear interpolation calculationCalculation of after-tax cost of debtCalculation of market value of equityCalculation of market value of debtCalculation of WACC

(d)

Ungearing proxy company equity betaRegearing asset beta

Project-specific cost of equity using CAPM

(e)

Traditional view of capital structure

Miller and Modigliani views of capital structureMarket imperfections view of capital structureOther relevant discussion

Marks11111111111––––121111Maximum ––––1–23–53–41–2Maximum

––––1––––22–32–3Maximum

––––1110·50·5––––111––––21–23–42–31–2Maximum

––––Marks

12

7

–––6–––

253

5

5

4

–––8–––

2517

3(a)(i)

Current ordering costBuffer inventoryAverage inventoryHolding costTotal cost

(ii)

Economic order quantityEOQ order costHolding costTotal cost

(iii)Saving from EOQ ordering policy(b)

Current trade payables

Trade payables after discountIncrease in finance costsValue of discount

Net value of discount offer

(c)

Invoice discountingFactoring

(d)

Objectives of working capital managementRole of working capital management

4(a)

Timing of lease payments

Present value of cost of leasingPresent value of maintenance costsPresent value of salvage valuePresent value of cost of borrowingEvaluation of financing choice

Explanation of evaluation of financing method

(b)

Attractions of leasing as short-term finance sourceAttractions of leasing as long-term finance source

(c)

Explanation of interest (riba)

Explanation of returns on Islamic financial instruments

(d)

Liquidity preference theoryExpectations theory

Market segmentation theoryFiscal policy

18

Marks10·50·50·5––––0·5110·5––––

0·51111––––12–3––––3–43–4––––3–4111121––––32–3––––2–31–2––––3–41–21–21–2––––1–2Marks

3

31

5

6

–––7–––

2510

5

5

–––5–––

25MaximumMaximum

MaximumMaximumMaximum

因篇幅问题不能全部显示,请点此查看更多更全内容